Name: 
 

Final Review Test



Multiple Choice
Identify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 

 1. 

According to Wilhelm Wundt, the focus of psychology was on the scientific study of
a.
observable behavior
b.
conscious experience
c.
unconscious motivation
d.
the functions of behavior
 

 2. 

Dr. Smythe believes that in order to fully understand complex processes, such as taste, it is necessary to understand the purpose that taste plays in survival, not the elementary components that combine to produce taste sensations. Dr. Smythe's views are most consistent with
a.
the behaviorist approach to psychology
b.
the functionalist approach to psychology
c.
the structuralist approach to psychology
d.
the psychoanalytic approach to psychology
 

 3. 

The type of psychologist who would be most likely to study rats in a laboratory setting would be a
a.
behaviorist
b.
structuralist
c.
psychoanalyst
d.
Gestalt psychologist
 

 4. 

Which type of psychologist would be LEAST likely to generalize from studies of animal subjects to human behavior?
a.
a psychoanalyst
b.
a behaviorist
c.
a humanist
d.
a cognitive psychologist
 

 5. 

Margaret is an industrial psychologist who advises companies on how to improve worker morale. As a psychologist who attempts to solve practical problems, Margaret would most likely be considered
a.
an academic psychologist
b.
an applied psychologist
c.
a behavioral psychologist
d.
a humanistic psychologist
 

 6. 

Which of the following groups is most likely to have been used as subjects for psychological research?
a.
a variety of individuals
b.
lower-class males
c.
lower-class males and females
d.
middle- and upper-class white males
 

 7. 

Evolutionary psychologists would most likely explain females' greater emphasis on potential mates' economic resources by suggesting that it
a.
increases resources available for their children
b.
supports their innate need for a large territory
c.
allows them to acquire a greater variety of time-saving appliances
d.
increases females' confidence about the maternity of their children
 

 8. 

The concept of culture is most closely related to which of the following?
a.
an individual's collective unconscious
b.
a genetic predisposition to behave in a particular way
c.
unconscious urges to satisfy one's basic instincts
d.
widely shared customs, beliefs, and values among members of a group
 

 9. 

The scientific method is designed to
a.
utilize subjectivity
b.
counteract subjectivity
c.
ignore subjectivity
d.
enhance subjectivity
 

 10. 

The word "critical" in the term "critical thinking" is generally meant to convey that
a.
thinking is essential to success in our culture
b.
critical thinkers are vigilant about their thinking
c.
the skills of effective thinking are learned early in life
d.
effective critical thinkers tend to be judgmental of others' views
 

 11. 

Hypotheses are typically expressed as
a.
theories
b.
variables
c.
predictions
d.
statistics
 

 12. 

The experiment is a research method in which the investigator
a.
systematically observes two variables to see whether there is an association between them
b.
observes behavior as it occurs in its natural environment
c.
conducts an in-depth investigation of an individual subject
d.
manipulates a variable under carefully controlled conditions and observes whether there are changes in a second variable as a result
 

 13. 

A group of researchers wants to determine if people are more likely to follow directions if the person giving the directions is in a uniform. Half the participants are directed to a parking spot by a uniformed security guard, the other half are directed to a parking spot by an individual wearing blue jeans and a t-shirt. In this study, the dependent variable would be
a.
the number of participants who park in the spot they are directed to
b.
the type of clothing worn by the person giving the directions
c.
the gender of the person driving into the parking lot
d.
the distance between the parking spot and the entrance
 

 14. 

If we were to measure the height and weight of 100 adult women, we would find that these two measures are
a.
uncorrelated
b.
increasingly correlated
c.
negatively correlated
d.
positively correlated
 

 15. 

One advantage of naturalistic observation is that it
a.
approximates the experimental method
b.
allows for cause-and-effect conclusions to be drawn
c.
allows behavior to be studied in realistic settings
d.
involves random assignment
 

 16. 

A researcher who is conducting an opinion survey asks viewers who are watching a political debate to dial a 1-800 number and record their opinion to the "question of the day." In this case the researcher is likely to have
a.
a representative sample
b.
a random sample
c.
a biased sample
d.
a random population
 

 17. 

Experimenter bias occurs when
a.
experimenters explicitly instruct the subjects to behave in a way that will be consistent with the hypothesis
b.
experimenters desire to make a favorable impression on their subjects
c.
experimenters' beliefs in their own hypotheses affect either the subjects' behavior or their observations of the subjects
d.
experimenters conduct their studies in a completely objective manner
 

 18. 

Which of the following is the correct sequence of information flow within a neuron?
a.
dendrites to soma to axon
b.
axon to soma to dendrites
c.
glia to dendrites to axon
d.
dendrites to axon to glia
 

 19. 

When a neurotransmitter is released, but it does not fit into a suitable receptor channel on the postsynaptic neuron
a.
an inhibitory postsynaptic potential will be generated
b.
an excitatory postsynaptic potential will be generated
c.
the strength of the action potential in the presynaptic neuron will increase
d.
the firing potential of the postsynaptic neuron will not be affected
 

 20. 

The somatic nervous system and the autonomic nervous system comprise the
a.
central nervous system
b.
peripheral nervous system
c.
skeletal nervous system
d.
afferent nervous system
 

 21. 

The __________ is most likely to be in control of bodily processes during periods of rest and recovery for the body.
a.
somatic nervous system
b.
sympathetic nervous system
c.
parasympathetic nervous system
d.
hypothalamus
 

 22. 

Sigourney's doctors think she might have a tumor, and they would like to use a brain-imaging technique that will provide them with an accurate image of her brain structure. The technique that they are most likely to use would be
a.
a positron emission tomography (PET) scan
b.
a computerized tomography (CT) scan
c.
electrical stimulation of the brain (ESB)
d.
an electroencephalograph (EEG) recording
 

 23. 

The structure that connects the two cerebral hemispheres is the
a.
corpus callosum
b.
pineal gland
c.
thalamus
d.
parietal lobe
 

 24. 

If you experience damage to Broca's area, you can expect to have difficulty
a.
being creative
b.
controlling your arms and legs
c.
speaking
d.
hearing
 

 25. 

In both split-brain people and neurologically intact people, the left hemisphere specializes in
a.
verbal processing
b.
visual recognition
c.
spatial perception
d.
verbal processing and spatial perception
 

 26. 

It appears that most human characteristics are influenced by
a.
a single gene
b.
a single pair of genes
c.
the father's genetic endowment more than the mother's
d.
more than one pair of genes
 

 27. 

Humans' taste preferences for fatty substances may be one example of
a.
the paradox of inclusive fitness
b.
an adaptation that has become a liability
c.
genetic drift across several generations
d.
recessive genes mutating into dominant traits
 

 28. 

The brain structure which is responsible for the human ability to engage in higher mental activity such as thinking and philosophizing is the
a.
corpus callosum
b.
cerebrum
c.
cerebellum
d.
hypothalamus
 

 29. 

In bright sunlight, the pupil of the eye is
a.
the same size as it is in a dark room
b.
dilated
c.
constricted
d.
closed
 

 30. 

If the pathway through the superior colliculus were not functioning correctly, you might expect that a person would have difficulty
a.
distinguishing colors
b.
perceiving depth
c.
detecting differences in texture
d.
integrating visual and auditory information
 

 31. 

Feature analysis assumes that we progress from individual elements to the whole in the formation of our perceptions. This is a case of
a.
bottom-up processing
b.
bottom-down processing
c.
top-down processing
d.
top-to-bottom processing
 

 32. 

Blake was at a football game, and even though people wearing green jackets were spread fairly evenly throughout the stands, he still perceived all the people in green jackets as a single group of visiting fans. Blake's perception is most consistent with the Gestalt principle of
a.
proximity
b.
similarity
c.
closure
d.
simplicity
 

 33. 

The phenomenon of size constancy implies that
a.
the perception of size is not related to the perception of distance
b.
the farther away an object is, the more we underestimate its true size
c.
two objects will be perceived as the same size whenever they produce the same size retinal image
d.
two objects may be perceived as being the same size even though they produce different size retinal images
 

 34. 

The retina is to the eye as the
a.
eardrum is to the ear
b.
ossicles are to the ear
c.
pinna is to the ear
d.
cochlea is to the ear
 

 35. 

The Impressionist technique of pointillism relies on the use of
a.
subtractive color mixing
b.
feature analysis
c.
additive color mixing
d.
binocular disparity as a cue for depth
 

 36. 

In classical conditioning, the stimulus that is originally neutral in regard to the response to be learned is the
a.
unconditioned stimulus
b.
unconditioned response
c.
conditioned stimulus
d.
conditioned response
 

 37. 

Researchers have found that animals show evidence of classical conditioning if they are injected with a drug that chemically causes immunosuppression, while they are simultaneously drinking an unusual-tasting liquid. In these studies, the conditioned response would be
a.
the immunosuppression
b.
the taste of the liquid that is used
c.
the injection of the drug
d.
fear of the injection process
 

 38. 

The phenomenon of spontaneous recovery suggests that
a.
classical conditioning can only be used to condition biologically meaningful responses
b.
even if a person is able to extinguish a conditioned response, there is an excellent chance that it will reappear later
c.
once a conditioned response has been extinguished, a person will also stop responding to other stimuli that are similar
d.
when a conditioned response is extinguished, higher-order responses replace the original response
 

 39. 

If a dog salivates to a blue light and not to a yellow light, the dog is showing evidence of
a.
spontaneous recovery
b.
conditioned emotional reactions
c.
stimulus generalization
d.
stimulus discrimination
 

 40. 

Kylee used to bring drawings home from her kindergarten class every day, and her parents would put the pictures on the refrigerator and tell Kylee how nice the pictures were. Lately, her parents haven't been putting her artwork on the refrigerator, and now Kylee has stopped bringing drawings home with her. This example illustrates the operant conditioning process of
a.
punishment
b.
avoidance
c.
resistance
d.
extinction
 

 41. 

When Kristen asks her grandmother for a cookie, her grandmother usually gives her one. Last week at the park, Kristen's mother was embarrassed when Kristen walked up to five different elderly ladies and asked them for cookies. Kristen's behavior illustrates the concept of
a.
unconditioned reinforcement
b.
stimulus generalization
c.
stimulus discrimination
d.
observational learning
 

 42. 

The newest winning numbers in the state lottery are announced on the local television station every Saturday night, at the end of the news hour. People who are watching for the lottery numbers will have their "watching" reinforced on
a.
a fixed-ratio schedule
b.
a variable-ratio schedule
c.
a variable-interval schedule
d.
a fixed-interval schedule
 

 43. 

Which of the following is an example of negative reinforcement?
a.
giving a child a sweet dessert as a reward for finishing his dinner
b.
paying a child $1 for each "A" received on her report card
c.
stopping nagging a child when he finally cleans his room
d.
cutting a child's TV time by 30 minutes each time she "talks back"
 

 44. 

Brenda has learned to take an over-the-counter medication 30 minutes before she eats a spicy meal. When she does this she is able to prevent the heartburn and indigestion that she would experience otherwise. This is an example of
a.
escape conditioning
b.
positive reinforcement
c.
classical conditioning
d.
avoidance conditioning
 

 45. 

Which of the following most clearly shows that an animal's biological makeup can affect the ease of learning an association?
a.
Pavlov's dogs, bells, and salivation
b.
Thorndike's cats in a puzzle box
c.
Skinner's rats in an operant chamber
d.
Garcia's conditioned taste aversion experiments
 

 46. 

Application of operant principles to solve behavior problems is generally known as
a.
behavior modification
b.
cognitive engineering
c.
modeling
d.
insight training
 

 47. 

If you were attempting to recall a memory, the memory process you would be using is
a.
encoding
b.
storage
c.
retrieval
d.
acquisition
 

 48. 

When you listen to a lecture, the information is held in __________ memory until you write it in your notes.
a.
trace
b.
sensory
c.
short-term
d.
long-term
 

 49. 

The memory system that has an almost unlimited storage capacity is
a.
time-based memory
b.
long-term memory
c.
working memory
d.
auditory sensory memory
 

 50. 

Which of the following statements regarding the role of context in memory is MOST accurate?
a.
Context cues often facilitate the retrieval of information.
b.
Context cues generally facilitate the retrieval of visual information, but interfere with the ability to recall auditory information.
c.
Context cues generally facilitate the retrieval of auditory information, but interfere with the ability to recall visual information.
d.
Context exerts no systematic influence on the encoding and retrieval of information.
 

 51. 

The probable reason that Ebbinghaus' forgetting curves were so steep was that Ebbinghaus
a.
had a poor memory
b.
learned too many lists
c.
used very meaningless materials
d.
used autobiographical materials
 

 52. 

You move to a new house and memorize your new phone number. Now, you can't remember your old phone number. This is an example of
a.
retroactive interference
b.
proactive interference
c.
retrograde amnesia
d.
motivated forgetting
 

 53. 

Those who question the accuracy of repressed memories are MOST likely to cite research on which of the following?
a.
the misinformation effect
b.
flashbulb memories
c.
retroactive interference
d.
connectionist models of memory
 

 54. 

The current thinking is that memories are consolidated in the __________ and stored in the __________.
a.
limbic system; cerebellum
b.
hippocampal region; cortex
c.
cortex; limbic system
d.
cerebellum; hippocampus
 

 55. 

Distributed practice refers to learning
a.
through several different senses
b.
over several sessions
c.
all at once
d.
from several different sources
 

 56. 

Functional fixedness refers to
a.
continued use of problem solving strategies that have worked in the past
b.
arriving at a particularly insightful solution to a problem
c.
focusing on information that is irrelevant to the solution of the problem
d.
not seeing a new function for a familiar object
 

 57. 

Sean was stranded in the desert after his plane crashed. He has the best chances for survival under these circumstances if his cognitive style is
a.
field independent
b.
risk-averse
c.
field dependent
d.
based on algorithms
 

 58. 

You apply to a graduate school that decides on who is accepted by demanding that three successive criteria be met: major GPA over 3.50; overall GPA over 3.00; GRE over 1000. Failure to meet any one eliminates an applicant. This is an example of
a.
the representativeness heuristic
b.
elimination by aspects
c.
a weighted decision strategy
d.
a purely additive decision strategy
 

 59. 

After seeing your new neighbor walking very stiffly and primly by your house wearing horn-rimmed glasses on a chain, a cardigan sweater, and her hair in a bun, you decide she must be a librarian. Your judgment is based on
a.
subjective probability
b.
subjective utility
c.
the availability heuristic
d.
the representativeness heuristic
 

 60. 

Overestimating the accuracy of your answer illustrates
a.
the conjunction fallacy
b.
the negative effects of framing
c.
the overconfidence effect
d.
the gambler's fallacy
 

 61. 

Diego is 8 years old, but on intelligence tests he scores at the level typical for a 10 year old. Using the intelligence quotient formula developed by Lewis Terman, Diego would have an IQ score of
a.
100
b.
102
c.
80
d.
125
 

 62. 

Test-retest procedures are used to determine a test's
a.
content validity
b.
reliability
c.
criterion validity
d.
accuracy
 

 63. 

According to Robert Sternberg, IQ tests tend to focus narrowly on which of the following types of intelligence?
a.
social
b.
mechanical
c.
quantitative
d.
academic/verbal
 

 64. 

Which of the following is an expression of the nurture side of the nature versus nurture argument?
a.
Environmental deprivation has little effect on intellectual performance.
b.
An intellectually stimulating environment will be wasted on those who do not have some innate intellectual potential.
c.
Intellectual potential is something with which you are born; it is not acquired.
d.
An intellectually stimulating environment can lead to noticeable increases in the IQs of disadvantaged children.
 

 65. 

Which of the following statements corresponds MOST closely to Arthur Jensen's position on ethnic differences in average IQ scores?
a.
IQ differences are a function of relative nutritional levels for different ethnic groups, particularly the amount of protein in one's diet.
b.
IQ differences reflect the inherent bias in IQ tests toward different ethnic groups.
c.
IQ differences are a function of the relative nature of the gene pool for different ethnic groups.
d.
Jensen is an interactionist and would partially endorse all of these statements.
 

 66. 

Davis is a gifted violinist who has been playing the violin since he was two. He started writing his own music when he was four. However, Davis has a difficult time expressing himself with words, and he struggles with all his written assignments for his classes at school. The theory of intelligence that could best be used to account for Davis' different levels of performance in these areas is
a.
Gardner's theory of multiple intelligences
b.
Spearman's g-factor theory
c.
Sternberg's triarchic theory
d.
Thurstone's theory of primary mental abilities
 

 67. 

Intelligence tests tend to measure __________ thinking; tests of creativity tend to measure __________ thinking.
a.
divergent; convergent
b.
divergent; divergent
c.
convergent; divergent
d.
convergent; convergent
 

 68. 

Finding ways to meet instinctual needs and still take into account the conditions of the external, social world defines the __________, the basic operating theme of the __________.
a.
reality principle; id
b.
reality principle; ego
c.
pleasure principle; id
d.
pleasure principle; ego
 

 69. 

Attributing one's own thoughts or motives to others defines
a.
reaction formation
b.
rationalization
c.
projection
d.
regression
 

 70. 

According to Freud, a person may become fixated at a particular psychosexual stage because of
a.
permissiveness on the part of the person's parents
b.
a genetic predisposition for fixation
c.
either excessive gratification or excessive frustration of needs
d.
abnormalities in brain chemistry that develop prenatally
 

 71. 

Freud's concept of the unconscious is MOST like Jung's
a.
preconscious
b.
personal unconscious
c.
collective unconscious
d.
archetypes
 

 72. 

Juan used to be a fairly generous individual, but it seemed that whenever he loaned things to people, they were never returned, or they were returned broken. Consequently, Juan is no longer generous. Based on principles of operant conditioning, Juan's lack of generosity is most likely a result of
a.
punishment
b.
positive reinforcement
c.
negative reinforcement
d.
extinction
 

 73. 

The fact that we tend to behave differently in different situations has led Walter Mischel to contend that behavior tends to be
a.
situationally specific
b.
situationally consistent
c.
reliable
d.
situationally similar
 

 74. 

According to Carl Rogers, troublesome anxiety is caused by
a.
unresolved sexual conflicts
b.
unconditional love
c.
threats to our self-concept
d.
the use of defense mechanisms
 

 75. 

Shayna has a job that pays well, and she has three children who are now all in adolescence. For the past few months she finds herself increasingly restless, and she is thinking about enrolling in university and taking some classes in art, which has always interested her. According to Maslow's hierarchy of needs, Shayna is probably primarily motivated by
a.
esteem needs
b.
belongingness and love needs
c.
cognitive needs
d.
homeostatic drives
 

 76. 

According to the evolutionary approach to personality, humans have evolved special sensitivity to variations in the capacity to be an innovative problem solver, which is closely associated with which of the following Big Five personality traits?
a.
neuroticism
b.
extraversion
c.
conscientiousness
d.
openness to experience
 

 77. 

A personality measure that asks you to respond freely to an ambiguous stimulus such as a picture or an inkblot is called a
a.
self-report personality inventory
b.
projective test
c.
behavior rating
d.
deceptive test
 

 78. 

Diagnosis is to prognosis as
a.
why is to what
b.
what is to outcome
c.
outcome is to etiology
d.
ontogeny is to phylogeny
 

 79. 

Roger enjoys gambling so much that he does it every day, totally neglecting his family and job. Roger's behavior satisfies which criterion of abnormality MOST clearly?
a.
personal distress
b.
deviance
c.
persistence
d.
maladaptive behavior
 

 80. 

The major difference between a phobic disorder and a generalized anxiety disorder is that
a.
the phobic disorder is more severe and more difficult to treat
b.
anxiety is specific to one object or situation in a phobic disorder, but is "free floating" in a generalized anxiety disorder
c.
the generalized anxiety disorder occurs primarily in men, and the phobic disorder occurs primarily in women
d.
only the generalized anxiety disorder depends on past conditioning
 

 81. 

Posttraumatic stress disorder involves
a.
physical, mental, and emotional exhaustion attributable to long-term involvement in emotionally demanding situations
b.
aggravated symptoms that emerge when burnout goes untreated for several years
c.
disturbed behavior that emerges after a major stressful event is over
d.
the emergence of schizophrenic symptoms in individuals exposed to chronic stress
 

 82. 

Jim is unable to move his left arm despite the fact there is nothing physically wrong with him. Jim will MOST likely be diagnosed as having
a.
hypochondriasis
b.
somatization disorder
c.
conversion disorder
d.
a parasomnia
 

 83. 

Alexia started a new job on Monday morning. For the first three days she showed up in bright colors and was outgoing and extroverted. However, on Thursday she showed up in a dark suit and appeared shy and introverted. She insisted that her name was Clara, and she couldn't understand why her coworkers kept calling her Alexia. In this example, Alexia is showing symptoms that are consistent with
a.
bipolar disorder
b.
dissociative identity disorder
c.
disorganized schizophrenia
d.
antisocial personality disorder
 

 84. 

Which of the following symptoms is NOT associated with someone who has a bipolar disorder?
a.
sexually reckless behavior
b.
inflated self-esteem
c.
decreased need for sleep
d.
hallucinations
 

 85. 

Which of the following neurotransmitters has been implicated in mood disorders?
a.
GABA
b.
serotonin
c.
dopamine
d.
endorphins
 

 86. 

Harold sits all day alone on a park bench, babbling incoherently and giggling to himself. Harold would MOST likely be diagnosed as having
a.
paranoid schizophrenia
b.
catatonic schizophrenia
c.
disorganized schizophrenia
d.
undifferentiated schizophrenia
 

 87. 

Renata recently had a magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) scan done. The results showed that her brain has enlarged ventricles. If Renata has a psychological disorder, the results of her MRI scan would suggest that the disorder is MOST likely
a.
obsessive-compulsive disorder
b.
bipolar disorder
c.
schizophrenia
d.
dissociative identity disorder
 

 88. 

Newton believes that all airline pilots are calm, cool individuals who never get excited or show any strong emotional responses. In this case, Newton's beliefs about the traits and behaviors of airline pilots are one example of
a.
the fundamental attribution error
b.
a confirmation bias
c.
stereotypes
d.
the matching hypothesis
 

 89. 

Blaming your friend's auto accident on the weather conditions is an example of
a.
a self-serving attribution
b.
a defensive attribution
c.
an external attribution
d.
a dispositional attribution
 

 90. 

When Darren's classmate earns a "D" on an essay for their history class, Darren figures the classmate is unmotivated, and should have spent more time working on the paper and less time socializing. The classmate is disappointed with her grade, but she knows she didn't have much time to work on the essay because she had to work double-shifts the entire week before the paper was due. The different attributions for the low grade on the essay illustrate
a.
the actor-observer bias
b.
defensive attributions
c.
the self-serving bias
d.
cognitive dissonance
 

 91. 

Putting group goals ahead of personal goals and defining one's identity in terms of the groups one belongs to is called
a.
collectivism
b.
functionalism
c.
individualism
d.
attributionism
 

 92. 

Pierre is a moderately attractive 16-year-old. The high school that he attends is holding a "Sadie Hawkins" dance where the girls ask the boys to the dance. He is hoping to be asked to the dance by either Whitney or Tammy. Whitney is moderately attractive; Tammy is extremely attractive. Based on the evidence from studies which have investigated physical attractiveness and dating, it is most likely that
a.
Tammy will ask Pierre to the dance, because people tend to select partners who are slightly less attractive
b.
neither girl will ask Pierre to the dance, because people tend to select partners who are more attractive
c.
both girls will ask Pierre to the dance, because women are less likely to consider attractiveness in selecting partners
d.
Whitney will ask Pierre to the dance, because people tend to select partners who match their own level of attractiveness
 

 93. 

According to Sternberg, long-term, older relationships are dominated by
a.
passion and romantic love
b.
commitment and passion
c.
commitment and intimacy
d.
fatuous and companionate love
 

 94. 

Virginia has a favorable attitude toward aerobics and working out. Just the thought of her daily workout is enough to make Virginia feel good, and she finds that when she is at the gym she feels much more relaxed and much less stressed. These emotional responses form part of the
a.
cognitive component of Virginia's attitude toward working out
b.
behavioral component of Virginia's attitude toward working out
c.
physiological component of Virginia's attitude toward working out
d.
affective component of Virginia's attitude toward working out
 

 95. 

Mort is trying to convince his parents that he should enroll at a university in another state, rather than the local university. He has made five strong points that support his position, but his parents are not yet convinced. Based on the research into factors which influence persuasion, at this point Mort should
a.
add additional points that support his position, even if they are weaker arguments
b.
ask his parents to think about their decision for a few days
c.
repeat the arguments that he has already made
d.
play some soft background music while he and his parents discuss the issue some more
 

 96. 

Minimizing the imbalance of inconsistent attitudes is a technique used to
a.
resist persuasion
b.
counteract self-handicapping
c.
reduce the discomfort associated with cognitive dissonance
d.
maintain psychological control in situations in which great pressure exists to behave counter-attitudinally
 

 97. 

Yielding to real or imagined social pressure defines which of the following terms?
a.
cognitive dissonance
b.
obedience
c.
groupthink
d.
conformity
 

 98. 

In Milgram's research on obedience, what did the experimenter do to the teacher when the teacher questioned whether the experiment should continue?
a.
The teacher was verbally abused.
b.
The teacher was shocked.
c.
The teacher was given verbal prompts to continue.
d.
The teacher was requested to change places with the learner.
 

 99. 

Evidence from numerous studies of the bystander effect suggests that
a.
it is a widespread phenomenon
b.
it is limited to contrived laboratory situations
c.
it occurs only in urban ghetto areas
d.
there is much truth to the old saying that "there is safety in numbers"
 

 100. 

Censoring dissent, pressuring to conform, omitting contradictory evidence, and polarizing ingroup and outgroup are basic features of which of the following?
a.
social loafing
b.
group polarization
c.
social diffusion
d.
groupthink
 

 101. 

The purveyors of miracle tonics and psychic advice tend to rely on which of the following forms of evidence?
a.
anecdotal evidence
b.
findings from observational research
c.
results from laboratory experiments
d.
findings from surveys and questionnaires
 



 
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